Back to Chapter 15 - Personnel Programs
141. The VA offers a wide range of benefits to the nation’s veterans, service members, and their families. VA benefits and services fall into these major categories:
A. disability benefits and education benefits
B. vocational rehabilitation and employment, home loans, and burial benefits
C. dependents’ and survivors’ benefits, life insurance, and health care
*D. all of these answers
15.19.
142. The main purpose of the VA home loan program is to help veterans finance the purchase of homes with favorable loan terms. Who is eligible for this program?
A. certain members of the Selected Reserve
B. Regular Air Force personnel
C. certain categories of spouses
*D. all of these answers
15.19.4.
143. Burial benefits include burial in a VA national cemetery, government-furnished headstone or marker, presidential memorial certificate, burial flag, and, in some cases, reimbursement of burial expenses. Who is eligible for these benefits?
A. any service member who served more than 90 days TAFMS
B. only Regular Air Force personnel who died while on active duty
C. only Regular Air Force members who died while in the line of duty (LOD)
*D. service members and veterans (discharged under conditions other than dishonorable)
15.19.5.
144. Which VA benefit is a benefits program that pays a monthly payment to a surviving spouse, child, or parent of a veteran because of a service-connected death of the veteran?
A. Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP)
B. VA insurance program
*C. Dependency and indemnity compensation
D. VA burial benefits
15.19.6.
145. VA insurance programs provide insurance benefits for veterans and service members who may not be able to get insurance from private companies because of
A. a preexisting medical condition
B. the relatively high cost of insurance
C. their service-related employment outside the continental United States
*D. the risks involved in military service or a service-connected disability
15.19.7.
146. Enlisted members are eligible to retire if they have 20 years of TAFMS and
A. are at least 38 years old
B. a skill level commensurate with their grade
C. agree to a continued inactive service obligation of ten years
*D. there are no restrictions per AFI 36-3203, Service Retirements
15.20.
147. Enlisted members must apply for retirement. Otherwise, they will separate
A. at the convenience of the owning unit
B. on the anniversary of their enlistment
C. on the last day of the month prior to their scheduled PCS rotation
*D. on their date of separation (DOS) or expiration of term of service (ETS)
15.20.
148. Officers are eligible to retire if they have 20 years of TAFMS and
A. are at least 38 years old
*B. 10 years total active federal commissioned service
C. have completed their current assignment and service obligation
D. agree to a continued inactive service obligation of twenty years
15.20.
149. A retirement application may be submitted through vMPF up to 12 months, but no less than _________ before the minimum required service.
*A. 120 days
B. 90 days
C. 60 days
D. 59 days
15.20.
150. What normally determines which of the three existing retirement pay plans applies to a member?
A. their rank and time in grade (TIG)
B. their rank and date of separation (DOS)
*C. the date initially entered military service (DIEMS)
D. the total active federal military service date (TAFMSD)
15.20.2.
151. The purpose of the Survivor Benefit Plan is:
A. to ensure the best possible care for veterans after separation
*B. to provide a monthly income to survivors of retired military members
C. to ensure that disabled members have the opportunity for rehabilitation
D. to provide emergency relief and support for dislocated military families
15.21.
152. Who is automatically covered by the Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) at no cost while they remain on active duty?
A. all First Term Airmen
B. all Regular Air Force enlisted members
*C. regular Air Force members with a spouse or dependent children
D. all members who cannot obtain insurance due to military service
15.21.
153. Although regular Air Force members with a spouse or dependents are automatically covered by the Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) at no cost while on active duty, dependents will not receive annuities when
A. the death was determined to be in the line of duty (LOD)
B. the member was eligible for retirement at the time of death
C. the survivor is already receiving Dependency and Indemnity Compensation (DIC)
*D. the death is not in line of duty (LOD) and the member was not retirement eligible
15.21.
154. What is the only program that enables a portion of military retired pay to be paid to a member’s survivors?
*A. Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP)
B. Dependency and Indemnity Compensation (DIC)
C. Cost-of-Living Adjustment (COLA)
D. High-3 with Redux/Career Status Bonus (CSB) option
15.21.2.
155. The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) has a “paid-up” feature that permits members, who have __________ to stop paying premiums, but remain active participants in the plan.
A. a permanent, documented financial hardship
*B. reached age 70 and have paid 360 months of premiums
C. reached age 65 and have paid 240 months of premiums
D. completed 8 years of service in the Individual Ready Reserves
15.21.5.
156. Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) premiums stop when there is no longer an eligible beneficiary in a premium category, such as:
A. children are all too old for benefits and have no incapacity
B. a spouse is lost through death or divorce
C. an insurable interest person dies or coverage is terminated
*D. all of these answers
15.21.5.
157. Airman and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC) services are designed to
A. provide child care when military spouses are deployed
B. build a strong sense of community and support within the Air Force
C. assist commanders in assessing and supporting the welfare of the military community
*D. both B and C
15.22.1.
158. At the direction of the installation, the Emergency Family Assistance Control Center is stood up by the Airman and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC) to
A. provide child care when military spouses are deployed
B. provide disaster response during natural, mass casualty, or manmade disasters
C. provide support and leadership information in a one-stop environment
*D. both B and C
15.22.2.
159. The American Red Cross provides support to all Americans including active duty Air Force and National Guard and Reserves and their immediate families. The core service is
A. domestic disaster relief
B. community services that help the needy
*C. emergency communication messages
D. the collection, processing, and distribution of blood
15.23.
160. Commanders and supervisors perform many personnel management functions that require them to keep files on assigned personnel. These files are known as
*A. PIFs (Personal Information Files)
B. UIFs (Unfavorable Information Files)
C. MPF records
D. Data Verification Records (DVR)
15.24.1.
161. What regulation governs the use and maintenance of the commander’s or supervisor’s PIFs?
A. AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program
B. AFI 36-2907, Unfavorable Information File (UIF) Program
*C. AFI 36-2608, Military Personnel Records System
D. DoDD 1304.20, Enlisted Personnel Management System
15.24.1.
162. Commanders or equivalents maintain discretion to create PIFs on all assigned personnel, but PIFs are mandatory for officers who
A. enforce the Privacy Act of 1974
B. are assigned as Flight commanders
C. volunteer for the astronaut program
*D. receive a Letter of Admonishment or a Letter of Counseling
15.24.1.
163. The files that commanders and supervisors maintain on assigned personnel are known as PIFs (Personal Information Files) and, in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, a person who is the subject of these files may request access to them
*A. at any time
B. before reassignment
C. upon separation
D. when they are no longer required
15.24.2.
164. The contents of an Airman's PIF are available for use only by
A. any commissioned officer
B. the Airman who is the subject of the documents
C. any individual in the Airman's chain of command
*D. the individuals or by offices for the purpose of which the Air Force created the records
15.24.2.
165. When is the PIF destroyed or given to the member?
A. upon notification of promotion
B. when its contents have been permanently recorded
*C. upon separation, reassignment, or when no longer needed
D. when requested by the subject of the PIF or upon discharge
15.24.2.
166. What legislation established a code of fair information practices that govern the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personally identifiable information (PII) about individuals that is maintained in systems of records by federal agencies?
*A. the Privacy Act of 1974
B. the Key West Agreement of 1948
C. the National Security Act of 1947
D. the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
15.25.1.
167. A group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual is known as
A. Data Verification Records (DVR)
*B. Privacy Act System of Records
C. Unfavorable Information files (UIFs)
D. PIFs (Personal Information Files)
15.25.1.
168. Under Privacy Act guidelines, an individual is defined as
A. a singular entity; a component of a group
B. an entity identifiable by a unique set of data
C. a person born in the United States or its territories
*D. a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence
15.25.1.
169. Privacy Act rights are personal to the individual who is the subject of the record and cannot be asserted derivatively by others unless
A. the individual is a minor
B. the individual is incompetent
C. the individual is TDY
*D. both A and B
15.25.1.
170. The Privacy Act prohibits the disclosure of information from a system of records without the written consent of the subject individual unless
A. the individual is a minor
*B. the disclosure is pursuant to 1 of 12 statutory exceptions
C. the individual is an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence
D. the individual lost rights to Privacy Act protection due to an arrest
15.25.1.
171. The Privacy Act limits the collection of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) to
*A. what the law or Executive Orders authorize
B. that which is determined necessary by the requesting office
C. data which cannot, by itself, be used to identify an individual
D. all of these answers
15.25.2.
172. A Privacy Act statement must be given when
A. personnel request exemption to established policy
B. personnel identify instances of Fraud, Waste, and Abuse
C. individuals are subject to counseling, non-judicial punishment, or UCMJ actions
*D. individuals are asked to provide information about themselves for use in a system of records
15.25.2.
173. A Privacy Act Statement must be given when individuals are asked to provide Personally Identifiable Information (PII) about themselves for collection in a system of records. This statement will explain
A. the penalty for failure to provide the requested information
B. how to obtain access to this information under the Freedom of Information Act
C. the location in the Federal Register where the requested information will be stored
*D. the law or authority for requesting the information, how it will be used, and whether providing it is voluntary or mandatory
15.25.2.
174. A Privacy Act Statement must be given when individuals are asked to provide Personally Identifiable Information (PII) about themselves for use in a system of records. If a social security number is being requested, the individual must be told
A. the penalty for failure to provide the requested information
B. how to obtain access to this information under the Freedom of Information Act
C. the location in the Federal Register where the requested information will be stored
*D. the law or authority for requesting the information, how it will be used, and whether providing it is voluntary or mandatory
15.25.2.
175. The Privacy Act of 1974 protects individual privacy by limiting the collection of personal information to what the law authorizes. In addition, the Privacy Act protects individual privacy by
A. limiting the use of records to what is in the System of Records Notice (SORN)
B. explaining the authority for requesting the information, how it will be used, and whether it is voluntary or mandatory
C. requiring records to be safeguarded to ensure their security and to prevent harm, embarrassment, or unfairness to individuals
*D. all of the above
15.25.3.
176. The Freedom of Information Act
*A. provides access to federal agency records (or parts of these records)
B. limits the collection of personal information to what the law authorizes
C. limits the use of records to what is in the System of Records Notice (SORN)
D. authorizes the use and maintenance of the commander’s or supervisor’s PIFs
15.26.
177. The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) provides access to federal records (or parts of these records) except those protected from release by nine specific exemptions. Requests for records must be either denied or records released within
A. 10 days
B. 120 days
*C. 20 workdays
D. 90 calendar days
15.26.
178. Requests for federal records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) must be either denied or released within 20 workdays. The law permits an additional _________ extension in unusual circumstances.
A. 3-workday
B. 20-workday
*C. 10-workday
D. 30-workday
15.26.
179. The highest level of administrative review for military records is
A. the Military Personnel Flight, Randolph AFB
B. the Major Command Functional Area Manager
C. the Air Force Discharge Review Board (AFDRB)
*D. the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)
15.27.1.
180. With few exceptions, the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) may correct any part of military records: EPRs may be upgraded or rewritten, discharges may be upgraded, and Article 15 actions may be voided. However, the AFBCMR cannot
A. credit leave
B. effect reinstatement into the Air Force
*C. change the verdict of a courts-martial
D. change benefit elections
15.27.2.
181. Other administrative remedies must be exhausted before applying to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR). For example, EPR appeals must first be submitted under the provisions of
A. the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
B. the appellate authority of the Air Force Vice Chief of Staff
*C. AFI 36-2401, Correcting Officer and Enlisted Evaluation Reports
D. the Judge Advocate General (TJAG) review
15.27.3.
182. The Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) does not have the authority to change the verdict of a court-martial. However it can change
A. the court-martial's sentence
B. reenlistment eligibility codes
C. benefit elections
*D. all of these answers
15.27.5.
183. Although the SECAF or designee retains final authority, the recommendation of the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) panel is normally accepted. Requests for reconsideration are considered only if
A. forwarded by a formal appeal authority
B. the regulation governing the situation has changed
C. the member has over 16 years of TAFMS and has commander-endorsement
*D. the applicant can provide evidence that was not available when the original application was submitted
15.27.5.
184. Beginning in 2002, all cases submitted to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) were required to be completed within 18 months. After FY 2010, 90 percent of the cases must be completed within
A. 24 months
B. 90 workdays
*C. 10 months
D. 120 calendar days
15.27.6.
185. The Air Force Discharge Review Board (AFDRB) gives former Air Force members the opportunity to request review of their discharge except in the instance of
A. a bad conduct discharge
B. an administrative discharge
C. a discharge as a result of a special court-martial
*D. a discharge or dismissal by general court-martial
15.28.1.
186. The objective of a discharge review is to examine an applicant’s administrative discharge and to change the characterization of service, the reason for discharge, or both, based on
A. current law or legal standing
*B. standards of propriety or equity
C. the articles of the Geneva Convention
D. the Airman's grade and years of service
15.28.1.
187. Where are Air Force Discharge Review Board (AFDRB) reviews conducted?
A. only in Washington, DC
B. at Randolph AFB
*C. in Washington, DC and throughout the United States
D. at the appropriate appeal authority location for a given rank
15.28.2.
188. At which board is a personal appearance a statutory right?
A. Order of the Sword committee
*B. Air Force Discharge Review Board (AFDRB)
C. Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)
D. all of these answers
15.28.2.
189. There is no minimum waiting period required to submit an application for a discharge review but the Air Force Discharge Review Board (AFDRB) may not review requests submitted beyond
*A. 15 years of the DOS
B. 20 years of the DOS
C. 5 years of the DOS
D. 1 year of the DOS
15.28.4.
190. There are some common misperceptions about the Air Force Discharge Review Board (AFDRB). Which of the following are true concerning application to the AFDRB?
*A. members may engage counsel at their own expense
B. there are provisions to automatically upgrade a discharge
C. the military will pay travel expenses to AFDRB hearing sites
D. the military will bear the cost of private counsel
15.28.4.
191. The Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) is a suite of applications that provides the ability to conduct some personnel business online. Applications now available in vMPF include
A. application for humanitarian reassignment
B. reenlistment eligibility inquiry
C. overseas returnee counseling
*D. all of these answers
15.29.