Back to Chapter 15 - Personnel Programs



Air Force PDG Study Guide, 1 Oct 2011

Chapter 15 - Personnel Programs

Answers/References for Sections 15J and 15K



Section 15J - SNCO Promotion Program



1. In the SNCO promotion program, the importance of individual responsibility cannot be overemphasized. Each individual is responsible for ensuring

A. they are properly identified as eligible

B. they have the current study materials, know when the testing cycle starts, and studies and tests when scheduled

C. the information in their selection folder at HQ AFPC is accurate and complete

*D. all of these answers

15.48.1.



2. Eligibles for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt should obtain their Enlisted Data Verification Record (DVR) through

*A. vMPF

B. ARMS/PRDA

C. HQ AFPC

D. all of these answers

15.48.2.



3. Eligibles for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt should review their DVR, their documents filed in ARMS/PRDA, and the SNCO selection folder to ensure data is accurate and appropriate documents are filed. Eligibles should notify ___________ of any errors.

A. vMPF

*B. their MPS

C. HQ AFPC

D. ARMS/PRDA

15.48.3.



4. Eligibles for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt should review their DVR, their documents filed in ARMS/PRDA, and the SNCO selection folder to ensure data is accurate. A copy of the SNCO selection folder may be obtained from

A. vMPF

B. the member's MPS

*C. HQ AFPC by written request

D. the Wing Commander's PIF

15.48.3.



5. The Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) for SMSgt and CMSgt promotions consists of up to five weighted factors: USAFSE, TIS, TIG, decorations, and EPRs. The maximum points possible for USAFSE is

A. 250

B. 360

*C. 100

D. 200

15.49.1.



6. The test cycle for promotion to SMSgt is

A. May - June

B. February - March

C. September

*D. December

15.49.1.



7. The test cycle for promotion to CMSgt is

A. May - June

B. February - March

*C. September

D. December

15.49.1.



8. The minimum Time in Service (TIS) required for promotion to SMSgt is

A. 9 years

*B. 11 years

C. 14 years

D. 15 years

15.49.1.



9. The minimum Time in Service (TIS) required for promotion to CMSgt is

A. 9 years

B. 11 years

*C. 14 years

D. 15 years

15.49.1.



10. The minimum Time in Grade (TIG) requirement for promotion to SMSgt is

*A. 20 months

B. 13 months

C. 60 months

D. 11 months

15.49.1.



11. The skill level required for promotion to SMSgt is

A. 3-level

B. 9-level (or equivalent certification)

C. 5-level

*D. 7-level (but may be waived)

15.49.1.



12. Persons being considered for promotion to CMSgt will compete for promotion

A. on a non-competitive basis

*B. in the CEM code of the CAFSC they held as of the PECD

C. at the superintendent level of the CAFSC they held as of the PECD

D. on a non-competitive basis with those members in their current AFSC

15.49.2.



13. Members being considered for promotion to SMSgt will compete for promotion

A. on a non-competitive basis

B. in the CEM code of the CAFSC they held as of the PECD

*C. in the superintendent level of the CAFSC they held as of the PECD

D. on a non-competitive basis with those members in their current AFSC

15.49.2.



14. The board considers academic education completed on or before the PECD. Up to ____ academic education levels can be reflected on the SNCO evaluation brief.

*A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six

15.49.3.



15. The PECD is used to determine the content of the selection folder and information on promotion evaluation briefs. The number of EPRs included is limited to

A. the last 5 years (maximum of 10 EPRs)

*B. those reports closed out 10 years before the PECD

C. twenty for active duty service members

D. the last 3 years (maximum of 5 EPRs)

15.49.4.



16. The PECD is used to determine the content of the selection folder. The number of EPRs included is limited to those reports closed out 10 years before the PECD but only ________ are used to compute the EPR weighted factor score.

*A. the last 5 years (maximum of 10 EPRs)

B. the last 5 years (maximum of 5 EPRs)

C. the last 3 years (maximum of 10 EPRs)

D. the last 3 years (maximum of 5 EPRs)

15.49.4.



17. The evaluation board is very important because

A. it is a Go-No Go barrier to promotion

*B. it accounts for over half the total score

C. membership virtually assures promotion

D. professional appearance and military bearing positively affect selection

15.50.



18. What determines the number and career field backgrounds of the Evaluation Board members?

A. public law

B. the Promotion Eligibility CutOff Date (PECD)

C. the ratio of SMSgt eligibles to CMSgt eligibles

*D. the number of eligible personnel identified by MAJCOM and AFSCs

15.50.1.



19. The number of eligible personnel identified by MAJCOM and AFSCs determines the number and career field backgrounds of the Evaluation Board members. Board members are divided into panels, each consisting of

*A. one Colonel and two CMSgts

B. two Lieutenants and one SNCO

C. four CMSgts and an administrative Assistant

D. three SNCOs, at least one of which is a CMSgt

15.50.1.



20. Evaluation Board members are divided into panels, each consisting of one Colonel and two CMSgts. The board president is always a

A. Command Chief Master Sergeant (CCM)

*B. general officer

C. CMSgt

D. commissioned officer (any rank)

15.50.1.



21. The Evaluation Board reviews records and rates the following categories:

A. performance, education, breadth of experience, and job responsibility

B. professional competence, specific achievements, and leadership

C. honesty, assertiveness, diplomacy, maturity, mental stamina, self-discipline, and self-assurance

*D. both A and B

15.50.2.



22. The Evaluation Board considers and rates performance, education, breadth of experience, job responsibility, professional competence, specific achievements, and leadership. When considering performance, the board reviews all EPRs

A. recorded since the Airman's enlistment

*B. for the 10 years preceding the PECD

C. for the 5 years preceding the PECD

D. recorded within 20 years immediately preceding the PECD

15.50.2.1.



23. When considering educational opportunities, enlisted members should focus on a degree program that

A. will make them competitive for promotion

B. that is accredited and sanctioned by the CCAF

*C. complements their career field and enhances their ability to do their job

D. broadens their experience and focuses on new skill sets outside their assigned CAFSC

15.50.2.2.



24. When the Evaluation Board evaluates academic education as part of the whole-person assessment, the most important consideration should be the degree to which the education

A. will make the member competitive for promotion

B. kept the member away from his primary job and responsibilities

*C. enhances the NCO’s potential to serve in the next higher grade

D. facilitates the transition from military life to civilian employment

15.50.2.2.



25. The Evaluation Board considers and rates performance, education, breadth of experience, job responsibility, professional competence, specific achievements, and leadership. When considering breadth of experience, the board considers

A. the level of postsecondary education completed

B. the NCO's life experience, from childhood to enlistment

C. experience gained during the 10 years immediately preceding the PECD

*D. the individual’s overall professional background, experience, and knowledge gained during his or her career to the present

15.50.2.3.



26. Evaluation Board members are given two selected sets of records to score as a practice exercise before the actual scoring process. Using the whole-person concept, they score the records using

*A. secret ballots

B. official records which are open to the public

C. official records subject to the Privacy Act

D. a transparent, open process

15.51.1.



27. During the Evaluation Board process, each panel member scores each record, using a

*A. 6 to 10 point scale and half-point increments

B. 1 to 5 point scale in whole number increments

C. 4 to 10 point scale in whole number increments

D. 1 to 5 point scale in half-point increments

15.51.2.



28. Each Evaluation Board panel member scores each record, using a 6 to 10 point scale in half-point increments. An individual’s record may receive a panel composite score of

A. 6 to 10 points

*B. 18 to 30 points

C. 270 to 450 points

D. 280 to 460 points

15.51.2.



29. An individual’s record may receive a panel composite score of 18 to 30 points. The composite score is later multiplied by a factor of ___, resulting in a total board score of ________.

*A. 15; 270 to 450

B. 10; 180 to 300

C. 5; 90 to 150

D. 6; 108 to 180

15.51.2.



30. During the Evaluation Board's evaluation process, a record scored with a difference of more than 1 point between any of the panel members is called a

A. merit point difference

*B. split vote

C. promotion point spread

D. show stopper

15.51.2.2.



31. A record scored with a difference of more than 1 point between any of the panel members is termed a split vote and is returned to the panel for resolution. If panel members cannot come to an agreement on the split vote

A. they assign the highest score but flag it for monitoring

*B. they give the record to the board president for resolution

C. they give the record to the senior panel member for resolution

D. they throw out the record and it will not be eligible for promotion during the current promotion cycle

15.51.2.2.



32. Board members do not have access to the weighted scores of individuals competing for promotion. Their primary concern is to

A. recognize exemplary performance and reward initiative

B. ensure Air Force policies on postsecondary education are enforced

*C. align all eligible in a relative order of merit, based on their panel score, within their CEM code or AFSC

D. select members for promotion based on their relative experience and demonstrated aptitude for increased responsibility

15.51.2.5.



33. Evaluation Board members are formally charged to ensure individuals are not only best qualified, but also fully qualified to assume the responsibility of the next higher grade. If the board determines an individual is Not Fully Qualified (NFQ), the individual is

*A. rendered NFQ for promotion

B. referred to the board president

C. considered for promotion during the supplemental promotion cycle

D. considered for promotion but competes only within his or her CAFSC

15.51.3.2.



34. If the board determines an individual is Not Fully Qualified (NFQ), the individual is rendered NFQ for promotion. The board is not allowed to disclose the exact rationale for its findings but factors contributing to the decision can be

A. an overall non-competitive record when compared to peers

B. a demonstrated substandard performance

C. disciplinary problems

*D. all of these answers

15.51.3.2.



35. Supplemental promotion consideration may be granted if there are errors or omissions on the DVR or in the ARMS/PRDA. But supplemental consideration will not be granted

A. to change the projected retirement date

B. to change the year of completion of academic education

C. if the error or omission appeared on the DVR or in the ARMS/PRDA and action was not taken before the board met

*D. all of these answers

15.52.1.



36. Supplemental promotion consideration may be granted if there are errors or omissions on the DVR or in the ARMS/PRDA. But supplemental consideration will not be granted

A. to show approved extension of High Year of Tenure (HYT) date

B. to delete a projected retirement that is not valid at the time the board met

*C. for Airmen needing more than the maximum board score (450 points) for selection

D. to render an Airman eligible (as of the PECD) who was erroneously ineligible when the board convened

15.52.1.



Section 15K - Manpower Management



37. Work center supervisors should periodically review their Unit Manning Document (UMD) to ensure it accurately reflects unit requirements. The UMD displays

*A. current and projected requirements

B. projected assignments and inbounds

C. the squadron's current budget balance

D. all of these answers

15.53.



38. The Unit Manning Document (UMD) displays current and projected requirements. Unit commanders and supervisors may request a UMD from

A. the servicing MPS

B. the squadron Resource Advisor

C. the MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM)

*D. the installation Manpower and Organization Section

15.53.



39. Since the unit manpower POC normally serves as the liaison between the unit and the installation Manpower and Organization Section, workcenter supervisors should coordinate any UMD changes with

*A. their unit manpower POC

B. their squadron Resource Advisor

C. the MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM)

D. the installation Manpower and Organization Section

15.53.



40. The terms “manpower authorization” and “manpower requirement” are often misunderstood. A manpower requirement is a

A. an unapproved Unit Manning Document (UMD)

B. validated human resource need paid for with appropriated funds

*C. statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program

D. declaration of preference for military "blue suiters" to fill a vacancy or position

15.54.1.



41. A "manpower requirement" is a statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program. There are two types of manpower requirements:

A. military and civilian

*B. funded and unfunded

C. appropriated and non-competitive

D. federal and service-sponsored

15.54.1.



42. There are two types of manpower requirements: funded and unfunded. Funded manpower requirements are

*A. those that have been validated and allocated

B. approved personnel programs deemed vital to morale

C. validated manpower needs that are deferred because of budgetary constraints

D. all of these answers

15.54.1.



43. There are two types of manpower requirements: funded and unfunded. Unfunded manpower requirements are

A. those that have been validated and allocated

B. active personnel programs paid for with other project's funds

*C. validated manpower needs that are deferred because of budgetary constraints

D. all of these answers

15.54.1.



44. The Enlisted Grades Allocation Program is designed to

A. ensure enlisted grades are equitably allocated to HQ USAF, MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs

B. ensure budgetary constraints are met

C. identify enlisted personnel who are best qualified for advancement and increased responsibility

*D. both A and B

15.54.2.



45. A grade imbalance between what is required and what is funded (authorized) can occur as a result of legislative and budgetary constraints on the allocated grades. For example, CMSgts are congressionally constrained to ____ of the total enlisted force.

A. 3 percent

*B. 1 percent

C. 2 percent

D. 5 percent

15.54.2.



46. HQ USAF implements congressional and DoD grade constraints by creating grade factors. Two types of factors created and distributed are:

A. overall command grade factors for each enlisted grade

B. personnel factors based on gender and religious preference

C. career progression group (CPG) factors for each AFSC to the first three digits

*D. both A and C

15.54.3.



47. HQ USAF implements congressional and DoD grade constraints by creating grade factors. Command grade factors ensure

*A. authorized grades do not exceed command-ceiling constraints

B. equitable allocation of the grades within each AFSC in each command

C. the most qualified personnel are assigned to the most critical positions

D. a balance of workers and supervisors or "Chiefs and Indians"

15.54.3.



48. HQ USAF implements congressional and DoD grade constraints by creating grade factors. Career Progression Group (CPG) factors ensure

A. authorized grades do not exceed command-ceiling constraints

B. a balance of workers and supervisors or "Chiefs and Indians"

*C. equitable allocation of the grades within each AFSC in each command

D. the most qualified personnel are assigned to the most critical positions

15.54.3.



49. Air Force career field managers can recommend adjustments to grade constraints to

A. MPS

B. HQ AFPC

*C. HQ USAF/A1M

D. the Staff Judge Advocate

15.54.3.



50. If a unit needs to change an existing requirement on the Unit Manning Document (UMD), what instrument is used to request the change?

A. the CA/CRL

B. a Report of Survey (ROS)

*C. an Authorization Change Request (ACR)

D. an AF IMT 803, Report of Task Evaluations

15.55.1.



51. Periodically, a unit may need to change an existing requirement on the Unit Manning Document (UMD) using an Authorization Change Request (ACR). Actions that require an ACR are

A. AFSC changes

B. position realignments

C. redistribution of funding from a funded requirement to an unfunded requirement and grade conversions

*D. all of these answers

15.55.2.



52. The core competencies of the installation Manpower and Organization section include

A. organization structure and requirement determination

B. program allocation and control and performance management

C. developing job safety standards that apply to their areas and training personnel

*D. both A and B

15.56.



53. What agency provides the following services: Performance Enhancement Capital Investment Program services, Innovative Development through Employee Awareness (IDEA) Program management, and consulting services?

A. the Financial Service Office (FSO)

B. the Airman and Family Readiness Center (A&FRC)

C. the Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF)

*D. the installation Manpower and Organization section

15.56.