Back to Chapter 19 - Security


Air Force PDG Study Guide, 1 Oct 2011

Chapter 19, Security

Multiple Choice Test References for Section 19C


Section 19C - Installation Security



51. The Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) Program employs active and passive, as well as offensive and defensive, multidisciplinary capabilities to

A. prepare, support, and sustain the current and future year's budget

B. ensure stock levels and inventories are unaffected by theft or waste

C. increase opportunities for advancement for both Regular and Reserve Airmen

*D. mitigate potential risks and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations

19.10.1.



52. The Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) Program ensures all Airmen are trained to

*A. defend themselves and integrate into defense operations

B. accept the culture and values of those from different backgrounds

C. pursue a set of goals which balance their personal life and career

D. balance a check book, make appointments, and other common life skills

19.10.1.



53. Installation commanders determine Integrated Defense (ID) requirements based on a four-step process: (1) Determining and prioritizing the criticality of installation assets, (2) Analyzing the threats and operating environment, and

A. (3) Making informed ID decisions, and (4) Resuming normal operations

*B. (3) Assessing installation vulnerabilities, and (4) Making ID decisions

C. (3) Protecting vulnerable assets, and (4) Shifting to offensive operations

D. (3) Implementing necessary protective measures, and (4) Providing required training

19.10.1.



54. The Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) Program is an “all-Airmen” program. However, _____________ have enterprise lead in ID operations.

*A. Air Force Security Forces

B. the emergency operations center (EOC)

C. the installation command and control (IC2)

D. the installation Manpower and Organization section staff

19.10.2.



55. The goal of the Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) program is to

A. facilitate the rapid sharing of material and resources within a MAJCOM

B. provide a racially and culturally neutral environment that enhances productivity

C. improve an installation's offensive capability through personnel readiness and rapid deployment

*D. neutralize security threats throughout the base boundary (BB) to ensure unhindered Air Force operations

19.10.3.



56. The Integrated Defense (ID) program does not stand alone in protecting personnel and resources. The protection and defense of air bases requires the coordinated effort of

A. Emergency Management (EM)

B. Antiterrorism (AT)

C. other forces under the Force Protection (FP) umbrella

*D. all of these answers

19.10.4.



57. Joint Publications define the base boundary (BB) as a line that delineates the surface area of a base. Which of the following statements about the BB is true?

A. The BSZ and the BB are always the same.

*B. The Base Boundary is not necessarily the base perimeter.

C. Boundaries must coincide with the fenced perimeter, property lines, or legal boundaries.

D. all of these answers

19.10.5.



58. The Base Security Zone (BSZ) is an Air Force unique concept and term. The Air Force uses the term to describe the area of concern around an air base and to

*A. support the establishment and adjustment of the Base Boundary

B. make prudent Integrated Defense decisions based on risk estimates

C. minimize mission degradation from threat activity within the Base Boundary

D. coordinate the efforts of Emergency Management, Antiterrorism, and other Force Protection forces

19.10.6.



59. The ______________ is the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable from standoff threats such as mortars or rockets.

A. Airfield

B. Base Boundary

C. Launch Footprint

*D. Base Security Zone (BSZ)

19.10.6.



60. The command and control center for Integrated Defense (ID) operations during routine and emergency operations is

A. the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

*B. the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

C. the Installation Command and Control (IC2)

D. the installation Manpower and Organization section

19.10.6.3.



61. This is an action group whereby the security forces staff S-2 (intelligence) function coordinates with subject matter experts (SME) from the Intelligence and AFOSI communities to collaborate and conduct intelligence preparation of the operational environment (IPOE).

A. the Unit Control Center (UCC)

*B. the Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)

C. the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

D. the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

19.11.3.



62. An analytical methodology which is a continuous, four-part process that: (1) defines the operating environment, (2) describes the operating environment’s effects, (3) evaluates the enemy, and (4) determines enemy course of action.

A. Air Expeditionary Force

B. Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS)

C. Air Force Smart Operations for the 21st Century (AFSO21)

*D. Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE)

19.11.6.



63. Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part involves comprehensive lists of tasked forces, terrain and weather, and background data on the operating environment?

*A. (1) define the operating environment

B. (2) describe the operating environment’s effects

C. (3) evaluate the enemy

D. (4) determine Enemy Course of Action (ECOA)

19.11.6.1.



64. Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part involves analyzing the data collected in Part 1 and describing how the factors affect operations, equipment, and personnel?

A. (1) define the operating environment

*B. (2) describe the operating environment’s effects

C. (3) evaluate the enemy

D. (4) determine Enemy Course of Action (ECOA)

19.11.6.2.



65. Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part involves making logical predictions of Enemy Course of Action?

A. (1) define the operating environment

B. (2) describe the operating environment’s effects

C. (3) evaluate the enemy

*D. (4) determine Enemy Course of Action (ECOA)

19.11.6.4.



66. This function provides installation commanders, integrated defense working groups, defense force commanders, and defense planners the ability to produce effects-based, integrated defense plans by using a standardized model to identify risks and develop risk management strategies.

A. Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS)

*B. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP)

C. Air Force Smart Operations for the 21st Century (AFSO21)

D. Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE)

19.12.



67. The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) has four main components: (1) the risk assessment, (2) the risk tolerance decision, (3) course of action determination, and

*A. (4) decision and implementation

B. (4) assessing installation vulnerabilities

C. (4) analyzing the threats and operating environment

D. (4) determining and prioritizing the criticality of installation assets

19.12.1.



68. Although the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process has four main components, they are accomplished in 7 steps. Step 4, Develop the Risk Assessment, states that a quantitative measurement of risk can be determined using the following equation:

A. risk = vulnerability divided by time + (countermeasures)

B. risk = number of vulnerabilities divided by number of countermeasures

*C. risk = asset criticality multiplied by (threat multiplied by vulnerability)

D. risk = likeliness of threat multiplied by (countermeasures X available personnel)

19.12.1.3.



69. There are four Security Protection levels. Protection Level 1 (PL1) is assigned to those resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would

A. damage United States war-fighting capability

B. adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force

*C. result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States

D. cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States

19.13.1.



70. Protection Level 1 (PL1) is assigned to those resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States. Examples of PL1 resources are

A. nuclear weapons in storage, mated to a delivery system or in transit

B. designated command, control, and communications (C3) facilities

C. aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States

*D. all of these answers

19.13.1.



71. There are four Security Protection levels. Protection Level 2 (PL2) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would

A. damage United States war-fighting capability

B. adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force

C. result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States

*D. cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States

19.13.2.



72. Protection Level 2 (PL2) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States. Examples of PL2 resources are

A. nonnuclear alert forces and designated space and launch systems

B. expensive, few in number, or one-of-a-kind systems or facilities

C. intelligence-gathering systems

*D. all of these answers

19.13.2.



73. Protection Level 3 (PL3) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would

*A. damage United States war-fighting capability

B. adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force

C. result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States

D. cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States

19.13.3.



74. Protection Level 3 (PL3) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage United States war-fighting capability. Examples of PL3 resources are

*A. selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment

B. nuclear weapons in storage, mated to a delivery system or in transit

C. aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States

D. nonnuclear alert forces and designated space and launch systems

19.13.3.



75. The lowest protection level is Protection Level 4 (PL4) which is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of PL1, PL2, or PL3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would

A. damage United States war-fighting capability

*B. adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force

C. result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States

D. cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States

19.13.4.